Wednesday, December 3, 2008

I Soft Interview Questions & Online Test

1) By default, the number of active connections in the queue waiting for server attention is 25. During heavy load, you can increase this to: a) (your answer) 50 - correct answer b) 64 c) 80 d) 120 e) 100
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2) This is NOT a good trick for improving performance: a) Minimize FTP user isolation. b) Use ISAPI extensions instead of ISAPI filters. c) Set up remote virtual directories. - correct answer d) (your answer) Keep websites and FTP servers on different machines.
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3) IIS 6 supports how many concurrent CGI applications by default? a) (your answer) 2 b) 4 - correct answer c) 6 d) 7 e) 8
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4) IIS has a feature for monitoring the health of multiple worker processes servicing an application pool called: a) HTTP keep-alive b) (your answer) IS monitoring services c) Application failsafe d) Rapid-fail protection - correct answer
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5) When looking at the Memory:pages/sec-counter, a number under 20 indicates: a) Everything is just fine and dandy; have some coffee and relax. - correct answer b) You need more RAM. c) Compare the number to the network card bandwidth to locate possible bottlenecks. d) (your answer) Increase the cache allotment.
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6) This tool simulates multiple browsers simultaneously connecting to IIS to get content or run apps: a) (your answer) Web Application Stress Tool - correct answer b) Microsoft Operations Manager c) Traffic Volume Manager Tool d) Microsoft Traffic Management Tool
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7) HTTP compression only works with web browsers developed after: a) (your answer) 1996 b) 1997 c) 1998 - correct answer d) 1999 e) 2000
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8) Application pool settings do NOT apply to this type of applications. a) (your answer) ISAPI b) CGI - correct answer c) ASP d) ASP.NET
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9) This is NOT a good way to boost ASP.NET application performance: a) Trap exceptions instead of using them to direct program flow. b) Disable session state, unless you actively plan to use it. c) Use storied procedures instead of ad hoc queries when accessing back-end SQL data. d) (your answer) Never leave caching turned on. - correct answer
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10) What's a good way to ensure your paging file doesn't become fragmented? a) Make the paging file size dynamic. b) Make the paging file size static. c) Make the paging file large and keep it on a single drive. - correct answer d) (your answer) Install MPDFRG.EXE and set it to run automatically.
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1) What does SQL stand for? a) Strong Question Language b) Structured Question Language c) (your answer) Structured Query Language - correct answer
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2) Which SQL statement is used to extract data from a database? a) GET b) OPEN c) (your answer) EXTRACT d) SELECT - correct answer e) QUERY
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3) Which SQL statement is used to update data in a database? a) (your answer) UPDATE - correct answer b) SAVE AS c) MODIFY d) SAVE
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4) Which SQL statement is used to delete data from a database? a) TRUNCATE b) (your answer) DELETE - correct answer c) REMOVE
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5) Which SQL statement is used to insert new data in a database? a) ADD RECORD b) ADD INTO c) (your answer) INSERT - correct answer d) ADD NEW
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6) With SQL, how do you select a column named "FirstName" from a table named "Persons"? a) EXTRACT FirstName FROM Persons b) (your answer) SELECT FirstName FROM Persons - correct answer c) SELECT Persons.FirstName
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7) With SQL, how do you select all the columns from a table named "Persons"? a) SELECT [all] FROM Persons b) SELECT All Persons c) SELECT *.Persons d) (your answer) SELECT * FROM Persons - correct answer
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8) With SQL, how do you select all the records from a table named "Persons" where the value of the column "FirstName" is "Peter"? a) SELECT [all] FROM Persons WHERE FirstName='Peter' b) SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName LIKE 'Peter' c) SELECT [all] FROM Persons WHERE FirstName LIKE 'Peter' d) (your answer) SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName='Peter' - correct answer
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9) With SQL, how do you select all the records from a table named "Persons" where the value of the column "FirstName" starts with an "a"? a) (your answer) SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName='%a%' b) SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName LIKE '%a' c) SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName='a' - correct answer d) SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName LIKE 'a%' e) SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName='a'"
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10) The OR operator displays a record if ANY conditions listed are true. The AND operator displays a record if ALL of the conditions listed are true a) (your answer) True - correct answer b) False
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11) With SQL, how do you select all the records from a table named "Persons" where the "FirstName" is "Peter" and the "LastName" is "Jackson"? a) SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName LIKE 'Peter' AND LastName LIKE 'Jackson' b) (your answer) SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE FirstName='Peter' AND LastName='Jackson' - correct answer c) SELECT FirstName='Peter', LastName='Jackson' FROM Persons
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12) With SQL, how do you select all the records from a table named "Persons" where the "LastName" is alphabetically between (and including) "Hansen" and "Pettersen"? a) SELECT LastName>'Hansen' AND LastName<'Pettersen' FROM Persons b) (your answer) SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE LastName BETWEEN 'Hansen' AND 'Pettersen' - correct answer c) SELECT * FROM Persons WHERE LastName>'Hansen' AND LastName<'Pettersen'
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13) Which SQL statement is used to return only different values? a) (your answer) SELECT UNIQUE b) SELECT INDENTITY c) SELECT DIFFERENT d) SELECT DISTINCT - correct answer
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14) Which SQL keyword is used to sort the result-set? a) (your answer) SORT BY b) ORDER c) ORDER BY - correct answer d) SORT
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15) With SQL, how can you return all the records from a table named "Persons" sorted descending by "FirstName"? a) (your answer) SELECT * FROM Persons SORT BY 'FirstName' DESC b) SELECT * FROM Persons ORDER BY FirstName DESC - correct answer c) SELECT * FROM Persons ORDER FirstName DESC d) SELECT * FROM Persons SORT 'FirstName' DESC
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16) With SQL, how can you insert a new record into the "Persons" table? a) (your answer) INSERT INTO Persons VALUES ('Jimmy', 'Jackson') - correct answer b) INSERT ('Jimmy', 'Jackson') INTO Persons c) INSERT VALUES ('Jimmy', 'Jackson') INTO Persons
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17) With SQL, how can you insert "Olsen" as the "LastName" in the "Persons" table? a) (your answer) INSERT INTO Persons (LastName) VALUES ('Olsen') - correct answer b) INSERT ('Olsen') INTO Persons (LastName) c) INSERT INTO Persons ('Olsen') INTO LastName
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18) How can you change "Hansen" into "Nilsen" in the "LastName" column in the Persons table? a) UPDATE Persons SET LastName='Hansen' INTO LastName='Nilsen' b) (your answer) UPDATE Persons SET LastName='Nilsen' WHERE LastName='Hansen' - correct answer c) MODIFY Persons SET LastName='Hansen' INTO LastName='Nilsen d) MODIFY Persons SET LastName='Nilsen' WHERE LastName='Hansen'
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19) With SQL, how can you delete the records where the "FirstName" is "Peter" in the Persons Table? a) (your answer) DELETE FROM Persons WHERE FirstName = 'Peter' - correct answer b) DELETE ROW FirstName='Peter' FROM Persons c) DELETE FirstName='Peter' FROM Persons
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20) With SQL, how can you return the number of records in the "Persons" table? a) SELECT COLUMNS() FROM Persons b) (your answer) SELECT COUNT(*) FROM Persons - correct answer c) SELECT COLUMNS(*) FROM Persons d) SELECT COUNT() FROM Persons
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21) Given an employees table as follows: empid name managerid a1 bob NULL b1 jim a1 B2 tom a1 What value will select count(*) from employees return? a) 1 b) (your answer) 2 c) 3 - correct answer d) none of the above
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22) The result of a SELECT statement can contain duplicate rows. a) (your answer) True - correct answer b) False
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23) Sometimes the expression "select count(*)" will return fewer rows than the expression "select count(value)". a) True b) (your answer) False - correct answer
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24) What type of lock will deny users any access to a table? a) EXPLICIT b) IMPLICIT c) EXCLUSIVE - correct answer d) SHARED e) (your answer) READ ONLY
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25) Which of the following is the correct SQL statement to use to remove rows from a table? a) DROP b) (your answer) REMOVE ROW c) DELETE - correct answer d) DELETE ROW
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26) The only way to join two tables is by using standard, ANSI syntax. a) (your answer) True b) False - correct answer
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27) A NULL value is treated as a blank or 0. a) True b) (your answer) False - correct answer
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28) The left outer join is one type of outer join. Another one is the. a) right b) full c) (your answer) right outer d) full outer e) all of the above - correct answer
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1) What will be the output of the following statement? SELECT LEN(CAST(LEFT('026-100', 3) AS INT)) a) 2 - correct answer b) (your answer) 3 c) 7 d) Statement will generate an error.
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2) What will be the output of the following statement? SELECT CAST(-1 AS SMALLDATETIME) a) 1900-01-01 00:00:00.000 b) 1899-01-01 00:00:00.000 c) 1752-01-01 00:00:00.000 d) (your answer) The system will generate an error. Only positive integer values can be converted to a SMALLDATETIME data type. - correct answer
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3) What will be the output of the following statement? SELECT ROUND(123.89, -1) a) 120.00 - correct answer b) (your answer) 123.00 c) 123.90 d) 124.00
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4) What will be the output of the following statement? SELECT STR(6365, 3) a) *** - correct answer b) (your answer) 6365 c) 6,365 d) 6400 e) 6365.000
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5) What will be the output of the following statement? SET ARITHABORT OFF SET ANSI_WARNINGS OFF SELECT 100/0 a) Null - correct answer b) 0 c) Infinity d) (your answer) An error is generated.
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6) View text definitions are stored in which system table? a) (your answer) sysobjects b) syscolumns c) syscomments - correct answer d) sysviews
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7) What's the maximum value can an INT data type hold? a) 2,147,483,647 - correct answer b) 2,147,483,648 c) 4,294,967,295 d) (your answer) 4,294,967,296
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8) What is the best data type to store the birthdays of the US Presidents, starting with George Washington's birthday of February 22, 1732? a) DATETIME b) INT - correct answer c) SMALLDATETIME d) (your answer) VARCHAR
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9) Which of the following is NOT a valid description of the public role? a) The public role captures all default permissions for users in a database. b) The public role cannot be dropped. c) The public role is contained in every database, including msdb, tempdb, model, and all user databases except in the master database for security purposes. - correct answer d) (your answer) The public role cannot have users, groups, or roles assigned to it.
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10) What is the maximum date value that can be stored in a SMALLDATETIME data type? a) June 6, 2079 - correct answer b) July 6, 2079 c) December 31, 2079 d) (your answer) December 31, 9999

1) Your SQL Server is running SQL 6.5 and you want to transfer the data from the SQL 6.5 server to a new SQL 7 Server. How can you do this? a) Using DTS Import b) Using bcp -out and use bcp -in to insert the data into the new SQL 7 Server c) Use the DTS Export d) Using bcp -copy, copy the data from the SQL 6.5 Server to the SQL 7 Server e) (your answer) Both A and B - correct answer
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2) You start SQL-Server with the -f option. Unfortunately now you can't establish a connection to your SQL-Server. What should you do? a) (your answer) Rebuild Master database b) Edit registry c) Run regrebld.exe - correct answer d) Restore registry from backup
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3) What SQL Server protocol must be installed to communicate via SQL Server with a Unix application? a) TCP/IP - correct answer b) Unix Command Protocol c) (your answer) Multiprotocol d) Named Pipes
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4) You friend is trying to familiarize herself with the DBCC commands with SQL server. Which command can she/he use to check if indexes are in the proper sorted order and if page offsets are reasonable? a) DBCC CHECKDB - correct answer b) DBCC NEWALLOC c) DBCC CHECKALLOC d) (your answer) DBCC CHECKCATALOG
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5) The SQL server that you've manages crashed. The disk drives were not damaged but there was data that had not been written to some databases. Which transactions will be rolled forward in each database when his SQL server starts the automatic recovery proce a) All committed transactions that are in the transaction log b) All uncommitted transactions that are in the transaction log c) (your answer) All committed transactions that are in the transaction log between the last checkpoint and the failure - correct answer d) All committed transactions that are in the transaction log between the last two checkpoints
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6) You want to prevent long-running queries from executing. How would you do this? a) Run the stored procedure set query governor cost limit. b) Modify the configuration parameter min memory per query. c) (your answer) Modify the configuration parameter show advanced options. d) Modify the configuration parameter query governor cost limit. e) Both C and D - correct answer
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7) You've just installed SQL Server 7 on a NT server using the Typical Installation option. When you start SQL for the first time, you get an error and it will not start. Where is one place you would check to see what is causing the error? a) C:MSSQL7LOGERROR.LOG b) C:MSSQL7ERROR.LOG c) C:MSSQL7SQLSTP.LOG d) (your answer) Windows NT Event Log-Application Log - correct answer e) Windows NT Event Log-System Log
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8) Under what occasions does the SQL Server 7 write events to the Windows NT application log? a) When the xp_logevent stored procedure is invoked b) When sp_addmessage or sp_altermessage define errors to be written to the NT application log c) When SQL Server errors occur with severity levels between 19 and 25 d) (your answer) When the RAISEERROR WITH LOG statement is executed e) All of the above - correct answer
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9) After installing SQL 7, you want to connect to the SQL 7 Server to verify installation. What graphical tools would you use to verify that the server is running? a) SQL Server Enterprise Manager b) SQL Server Transact c) (your answer) SQL Server Network Client d) SQL Server Query Analyzer e) Both A and D - correct answer
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10) What functions are performed by the SQL Server Agents? a) Replication management b) Job execution c) Notification d) Alert management e) (your answer) All of the above - correct answer
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11) You define full-text indexing on the ProductName column in the Products table. You then execute a full-text query on the column. You specify a word that you know is present in the column, but the result set is empty. What is the most likely cause? a) The catalog is not populated - correct answer b) You did not create a unique SQL Server index on the ProductName column c) The SQL ServerAgent Service is not running d) (your answer) The Microsoft Service is not running
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12) A client connecting to a SQL Server database from a Windows 98 workstation is able to connect in a Windows NT authentication mode. True or false? a) (your answer) True b) False - correct answer
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13) John Doe has SQL Server 4.2 and she wants to upgrade the server, data and database objects to SQL Server 7. Which upgrade path will accomplish this goal? a) (your answer) Just upgrade normally to SQL Server 7 b) Use SQL 6.5 Transfer Management Tool to push the data and objects from version 4.2 to 7 c) Upgrade the server to SQL Server 6.5, then upgrade again to SQL Server 7 - correct answer d) Use the DTS to transfer the data and objects
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14) John Doe wants to establish a replication model that will allow three branch offices to update data at the corporate site. Which replication model should John Doe use? a) Remote replication b) (your answer) Snapshot replication c) Transactional replication d) Merge replication - correct answer

15) Which of the following SQL Server services are installed during the Typical installation option on a NT Server? a) SQL Server Agent b) MS DTC c) MSSQL Server d) (your answer) All of the above - correct answer

16) Exchange and SQL 7.0 are running on the same server. You notice the performance in exchange is degraded. The Min server memory, Maximum server memory and set working area are set as they were automatically in the installation. What do you do to free memor a) (your answer) Increase Min server memory - correct answer b) Set working area to 1 c) Set working area to 0 d) Increase memory allocated to the procedure cache option e) Reduce Min server memory

17) The step object in a DTS (data transformation service) package can run in parallel when there are no precedence constraints on it. Which of the following are step object precedence constraints? a) (your answer) On failure b) Return codes c) On success d) All of the above - correct answer

18) Which of the four system databases stores all the information about alerts and jobs? a) (your answer) Msdb - correct answer b) Tempdb c) Master d) Model

19) You have been asked to copy a one-table Access database to another table that exists in a SQL Server 7 database. What is the best method you should use to copy the data? a) The copy_db command at a command prompt b) Data Transformation Services - correct answer c) The oslp utility d) (your answer) Data Transfer System e) The BULK INSERT statement

20) You must restore the MASTER database from a backup on a SQL 7 computer. You attempt to start the restore process but receive an error message. What must you do before you can restore the MASTER database? a) (your answer) Run the rebuild.exe program b) Drop the MASTER database c) Run the reblddb.exe program d) Run the sqlservr.eve program with the -m option - correct answer

1) You are a junior web designer. Your company assigns you to work on a JavaScript project. Which of the following are the advantages of using JavaScript for form validation? a) Conservation of client CPU resources b) Increased validity of form submission c) Conservation of bandwidth d) Increase end-user satisfaction e) (your answer) Either BCD - correct answer

2) Your company assigns you to work on a JavaScript project. With the DATE object, which of the following allows you to call a function based on an elapsed time? a) (your answer) setElapsedTime() b) Timeout() c) setTimeout() d) setTime() - correct answer

3) You are working on a JavaScript project. What is used to restart the inner most loop? a) Abort b) (your answer) Breakloop c) Stop d) Continue label - correct answer

4) You work on a JavaScript project. Which of the following correctly describe the relationships of JavaScript and "objects"? a) JavaScript is Object-oriented b) JavaScript is Object-based - correct answer c) JavaScript is Object-driven d) (your answer) JavaScript has no relationship with objects

5) You work on a JavaScript project. How do you prompt users with messages and at the same time requesting user inputs? a) Alert() b) Display() c) Prompt() - correct answer d) (your answer) Confirm()

6) Which of the following is the correct syntax of FOR? a) for ( increment; initialize; test) b) for ( initialize; test), increment c) (your answer) for ( initialize; test; increment) - correct answer d) for ( test; initalize; increment)

7) In your JavaScript code, how do you find out which character occurs at the 5th position in a string "How are you"? a) Substring() b) String() c) Stringlength() d) (your answer) CharAt() - correct answer

8) Which of the following do you use for a multi-way branch? a) If b) Ifthen c) Ifelse d) (your answer) switch - correct answer e) for

9) You want to design a form validation mechanism. Using string methods, which of the following are the steps involved ? a) Check for the presence of certain characters b) Check the position of substrings c) Test the length of data d) (your answer) Check the variable type of the strings e) Either ABC - correct answer

10) Which of the following is the minimum browser version that supports JavaScript a) Navigator v2.0 - correct answer b) Mozilla V1.5 c) (your answer) IE 2.0 d) Navigator V1.0

11) Under which of the following conditions will you need to include semi colons on a line of code? a) When you have multiple statements on multiple lines b) (your answer) When you have multiple statements on a line - correct answer c) When you have single statement on multiple lines d) When you have single statement on a line

12) Which of the following are the valid JavaScript versions? a) Version 1.2 b) Version 1.1 c) Version 1.3 d) Version 1.4 e) (your answer) All of the above - correct answer

13) Which of the following languages will you consider as being similar to JavaScript? a) C b) (your answer) C++ c) Pascal d) PHP e) Either A & C - correct answer

14) You plan the coding of your project. When must the object references be ready? a) (your answer) at run time - correct answer b) at compile time c) at debug time d) at code time

15) Which of the following correctly describe cookies ? a) Often referred to as "persistent cookies" b) Often referred to as "persistent HTML" c) Small memory-resident pieces of information sent from a server to the client d) (your answer) Small memory-resident pieces of information sent from a client to the server e) Either AB&C - correct answer

16) A program written by JavaScript is driven by a) (your answer) Events - correct answer b) Classes c) Objects d) DLL e) Components

17) What are JavaScript relations with the underlying operating platform? a) Platform dependent b) Platform linkage c) (your answer) Platform independent - correct answer d) Platform binding

18) When you plan for the JavaScript variable names, the first character must be? a) Underscore b) Comma c) Hyphen d) Letter e) (your answer) Either A&D - correct answer

19) Which of the following correctly describe JavaScript as a language? a) It is based on object creation b) It focuses on component building c) It focuses on logic flow d) (your answer) It emphasis on SCRIPTING - correct answer

20) When authoring web page with Javascript, why should you explicitly include the window object into your codes? a) this is a good practice - correct answer b) (your answer) this is REQUIRED c) this ensures browser compatibility d) this ensures OS compatibility

1) Which of the following is a tool used to secure expert judgment? a) (your answer) Peer Review b) Expected value technique c) Delphi Technique - correct answer d) Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)

2) What should be done by the project manager to ensure that all work in the project is included? a) Create a contingency plan b) Create a risk management plan c) Create a WBS - correct answer d) (your answer) Create a scope statement

3) What kind of a relationship is implied when completion of a successor is dependent on initiation of its predecessor? a) (your answer) FS b) FF c) SS d) SF - correct answer

4) What should a project manager do or follow to ensure clear boundaries for project completion? a) Scope verification b) Completing a scope statement - correct answer c) (your answer) Risk management plan d) scope definition

5) Which of the following provides the foundation for team development? a) (your answer) Motivation b) Organizational development c) Conflict management d) Individual development - correct answer

6) Which of the following is NOT an input to project plan execution? a) (your answer) Work authorization system - correct answer b) Project plan c) Corrective action d) Preventive action

7) A project manager would find team development the most difficult in which form of organization? a) (your answer) Weak Matrix organization - correct answer b) Balanced Matrix organization c) Projectized organization d) Tight Matrix organization

8) Once the project is complete, the complete set of project records should be put in which of the following? a) (your answer) Project archives - correct answer b) Database c) Storage room d) Project report

9) Which of the following is a common format for performance reporting? a) Pareto diagrams b) Bar charts - correct answer c) (your answer) Responsibility assignment matrices d) Control charts

10) f the cost variance is positive and the schedule variance is also positive, then it indicates that … a) Project is under budget and behind schedule - correct answer b) Project is over budget and behind schedule c) (your answer) Project is under budget and ahead of schedule d) Project is over budget and ahead of schedule

11) Which one of the following is the last step of project closing? a) Client appreciates your product b) Client has accepted the product c) Lessons learned are documented d) (your answer) Archives are complete - correct answer

12) Who should be involved in the creation of lessons learned, at closure of project? (choose the BEST answer) a) Project office b) Management of the performing organization c) (your answer) Project team d) Stakeholders - correct answer

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